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PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. According to the Basel II framework, subordinated term debt that was originally issued 4 years ago with amaturity of 6 years is considered a part of:

A) None of the above
B) Tier 3 capital
C) Tier 1 capital
D) Tier 2 capital

2. Which of the following statements are true:
I. Heavy tailed parametricdistributions are a good choice for severity modeling in operational risk.
II. Heavy tailed body-tail distributions are a good choice for severity modeling in operational risk.
III. Log-likelihood is a means to estimate parameters for a distribution.
IV. Body-tail distributions allow modeling small losses differently from large ones.

A) II, III and IV
B) II and III
C) All of the above
D) I and IV

3. Which of the following is not an event of default covered in the ISDA Master Agreement?
I. failure to pay or deliver
II. credit support default
III. merger without assumption
IV. Bankruptcy

A) All are considered events of default
B) II and III
C) I
D) IV

4. Under the CreditPortfolio View approach to credit risk modeling, which of the following best describes the conditional transition matrix:

A) The conditional transition matrix is the transition matrix adjusted for the risk horizon being different from that of the transition matrix
B) The conditional transition matrix is the unconditional transition matrix adjusted for the state of the economy and other macro economic factors being modeled
C) The conditional transition matrix is the unconditional transition matrix adjusted for probabilities of defaults
D) The conditional transition matrix is the transition matrix adjusted for the distribution of the firms' asset returns

5. If the odds of default are 1:5, what is the probability of default?

A) 20.00%
B) 16.67%
C) 12.00%
D) 50.00%

Solutions: