[Jul-2024] 100% Actual CDPSE dumps Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers
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The CDPSE certification is an essential credential for professionals who are looking to advance their careers in the field of data privacy. It demonstrates a candidate's expertise in data privacy management and compliance, and provides them with the knowledge and skills needed to protect sensitive information and mitigate data breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following should FIRST be established before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign?
- A. Business objectives of senior leaders
- B. Contract requirements for independent oversight
- C. Strategic goals of the organization
- D. Detailed documentation of data privacy processes
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The strategic goals of the organization should be established first before a privacy office starts to develop a data protection and privacy awareness campaign, because they provide the direction, purpose, and scope of the campaign. The strategic goals of the organization reflect its vision, mission, values, and objectives, as well as its alignment with the relevant privacy laws and regulations, stakeholder expectations, and industry best practices. The privacy office should design and implement the awareness campaign in a way that supports and promotes the strategic goals of the organization, as well as measures and evaluates its effectiveness and impact.
References:
CDPSE Review Manual, 2023 Edition, Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Section 1.1.2: Privacy Strategy Implementation, p. 19 CDPSE Review Manual, 2023 Edition, Domain 1: Privacy Governance, Section 1.3.2: Privacy Awareness and Training Program, p. 38-39 ICO launches data awareness campaign1
NEW QUESTION # 128
To ensure effective management of an organization's data privacy policy, senior leadership MUST define:
- A. the scope and responsibilities of the data owner.
- B. roles and responsibilities of the person with oversights.
- C. metrics and outcomes recommended by external agencies.
- D. training and testing requirements for employees handling personal data.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 129
A new marketing application needs to use data from the organization's customer database. Prior to the application using the data, which of the following should be done FIRST?
- A. De-identify all personal data in the database.
- B. Ensure the data loss prevention (DLP) tool is logging activity.
- C. Renew the encryption key to include the application.
- D. Determine what data is required by the application.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following BEST ensures a mobile application implementation will meet an organization's data security standards?
- A. User acceptance testing (UAT)
- B. Data classification
- C. Privacy impact assessment (PIA)
- D. Automatic dynamic code scan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which party should data subject contact FIRST if they believe their personal information has been collected and used without consent?
- A. Privacy rights advocate
- B. Data protection authorities
- C. The organization's chief privacy officer (CPO)
- D. Outside privacy counsel
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The data subject should contact the organization's chief privacy officer (CPO) first if they believe their personal information has been collected and used without consent. The CPO is the senior executive who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the organization's privacy vision, strategy, and program. The CPO oversees the development and implementation of privacy policies, procedures, standards, and controls, and ensures that they align with the organization's business objectives and legal obligations. The CPO also leads the privacy governance structure, such as the privacy steering committee, and coordinates with other stakeholders, such as the data protection authorities, the privacy rights advocates, and the outside privacy counsel, to ensure that privacy is integrated into all aspects of the organization's operations. The CPO is the primary point of contact for data subjects who have any questions, complaints, or requests regarding their personal information, and who can address their concerns and resolve their issues in a timely and effective manner. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 21
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following helps to ensure the identities of individuals in a two-way communication are verified?
- A. Mutual certificate authentication
- B. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
- C. Secure Shell (SSH)
- D. Virtual private network (VPN)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The best answer is D. Mutual certificate authentication.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Mutual certificate authentication is a method of mutual authentication that uses public key certificates to verify the identities of both parties in a two-way communication. A public key certificate is a digital document that contains information about the identity of the certificate holder, such as their name, organization, domain name, etc., as well as their public key, which is used for encryption and digital signature. A public key certificate is issued and signed by a trusted authority, called a certificate authority (CA), that vouches for the validity of the certificate.
Mutual certificate authentication works as follows:
* Both parties have a public key certificate issued by a CA that they trust.
* When they initiate a communication, they exchange their certificates with each other.
* They verify the signatures on the certificates using the CA's public key, which they already have or can obtain from a trusted source.
* They check that the certificates are not expired, revoked, or tampered with.
* They extract the public keys from the certificates and use them to encrypt and decrypt messages or to generate and verify digital signatures.
* They confirm that the identities in the certificates match their expectations and intentions.
By using mutual certificate authentication, both parties can be confident that they are communicating with the intended and legitimate party, and that their communication is secure and confidential.
Mutual certificate authentication is often used in conjunction with Transport Layer Security (TLS), a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for network communications. TLS supports both one-way and two-way authentication. In one-way authentication, only the server presents a certificate to the client, and the client verifies it. In two-way authentication, also known as mutual TLS or mTLS, both the server and the client present certificates to each other, and they both verify them. Mutual TLS is commonly used for secure web services, such as APIs or webhooks, that require both parties to authenticate each other.
Virtual private network (VPN), Secure Shell (SSH), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies that can help to ensure the identities of individuals in a two-way communication are verified, but they are not methods of mutual authentication by themselves. They can use mutual certificate authentication as one of their options, but they can also use other methods, such as username and password, pre-shared keys, or tokens.
Therefore, they are not as specific or accurate as mutual certificate authentication.
References:
* What is mutual authentication? | Two-way authentication1
* How to prove and verify someone's identity2
* Identity verification - Information Security & Policy3
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to ensure consumer credit card numbers are accurately captured?
- A. Input reference controls
- B. Access controls
- C. Input validation controls
- D. Reconciliation controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Input validation controls are the best way to ensure consumer credit card numbers are accurately captured.
Input validation controls are methods that check the format, type, range, and length of the input data before accepting, processing, or storing it. Input validation controls can help prevent errors, fraud, or data loss by rejecting invalid, incomplete, or malicious input. For example, input validation controls can verify that a credit card number follows the Luhn algorithm1, has the correct number of digits2, and matches the card issuer's prefix3. Input validation controls can also prevent SQL injection attacks4 or cross-site scripting attacks5 that may compromise the security and privacy of the data.
Input reference controls, access controls, and reconciliation controls are also important for data quality and security, but they do not directly ensure the accuracy of consumer credit card numbers. Input reference controls are methods that compare the input data with a predefined list of values or a reference table to ensure consistency and validity. For example, input reference controls can check if a country name or a postal code is valid by looking up a database of valid values. Access controls are methods that restrict who can access, modify, or delete the data based on their roles, permissions, or credentials. For example, access controls can prevent unauthorized users from accessing or tampering with consumer credit card numbers. Reconciliation controls are methods that compare the data from different sources or systems to ensure completeness and accuracy. For example, reconciliation controls can check if the transactions recorded in the accounting system match the transactions processed by the payment gateway.
References: Luhn algorithm, Credit card number, Bank card number, SQL injection, Cross-site scripting
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of adopting data minimization practices?
- A. Compliance requirements are met.
- B. The associated threat surface is reduced.
- C. Data retention efficiency is enhanced.
- D. Storage and encryption costs are reduced.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The greatest benefit of adopting data minimization practices is that the associated threat surface is reduced.
Data minimization is a privacy principle that states that personal data should be adequate, relevant, and limited to what is necessary for the purposes for which they are processed. Data minimization helps to protect data privacy by reducing the amount and type of personal data that are collected, stored, processed, or shared by an organization. This in turn reduces the exposure of personal data to potential threats, such as unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or loss. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 29
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which of the following MUST be available to facilitate a robust data breach management response?
- A. An inventory of previously impacted individuals
- B. Lessons learned from prior data breach responses
- C. An inventory of affected individuals and systems
- D. Best practices to obfuscate data for processing and storage
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which of the following processes BEST enables an organization to maintain the quality of personal data?
- A. Maintaining hashes to detect changes in data
- B. Implementing routine automatic validation
- C. Updating the data quality standard through periodic review
- D. Encrypting personal data at rest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to maintain the quality of personal data is to implement routine automatic validation, which is a process of checking the accuracy, completeness, consistency, and timeliness of the data using automated tools or scripts. Routine automatic validation can help identify and correct any errors, anomalies, or discrepancies in the data, as well as ensure that the data meets the specified quality standards and requirements. Routine automatic validation can also help improve the efficiency and reliability of the data processing and analysis12.
References:
* CDPSE Exam Content Outline, Domain 3 - Data Lifecycle (Data Quality), Task 2: Implement data quality measures3.
* CDPSE Review Manual, Chapter 3 - Data Lifecycle, Section 3.2 - Data Quality4.
NEW QUESTION # 137
Which of the following techniques mitigates design flaws in the application development process that may contribute to potential leakage of personal data?
- A. User acceptance testing (UAT)
- B. Web application firewall (WAF)
- C. Patch management
- D. Software hardening
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Software hardening is a technique that mitigates design flaws in the application development process that may contribute to potential leakage of personal data. Software hardening is a process of modifying or configuring software to make it more secure and resilient against attacks or exploitation. Software hardening can involve various methods, such as removing unnecessary features or functions, disabling debugging or testing modes, applying patches or updates, implementing secure coding practices, etc. Software hardening helps to protect personal data by preventing or reducing the vulnerabilities that can allow unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or transfer of personal data. References: : CDPSE Review Manual (Digital Version), page 151
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which of the following is MOST important to review before using an application programming interface (API) to help mitigate related privacy risk?
- A. Data taxonomy
- B. Data classification
- C. Data flows
- D. Data collection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data flows are the most important to review before using an application programming interface (API) to help mitigate related privacy risk. Data flows are the paths or routes that data take from their sources to their destinations through various processes, transformations, or exchanges. Data flows can help understand how data are collected, used, shared, stored, or deleted by an API and its related applications. Data flows can also help identify the potential privacy risks or impacts that may arise from data processing activities involving an API and its related applications. Data flows can be represented by diagrams, maps, models, or documents that show the sources, destinations, types, formats, volumes, frequencies, purposes, or legal bases of data.
Data taxonomy, data classification, and data collection are also important for privacy risk mitigation when using an API, but they are not the most important. Data taxonomy is a system of organizing and categorizing data into groups, classes, or hierarchies based on their characteristics, attributes, or relationships. Data taxonomy can help understand the structure, meaning, context, or value of data. Data classification is a process of assigning labels or tags to data based on their sensitivity, confidentiality, criticality, or risk level. Data classification can help determine the appropriate level of protection or handling for data. Data collection is a process of gathering or obtaining data from various sources for a specific purpose or objective. Data collection can help obtain the necessary information or evidence for decision making or problem solving.
References: Critical API security risks: 10 best practices | TechBeacon, Open APIs and Security Risks | Govenda Board Portal Software, The top API security risks and how to mitigate them - Appinventiv
NEW QUESTION # 139
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to support organizational privacy awareness objectives?
- A. Funding in-depth training and awareness education for data privacy staff
- B. Including mandatory awareness training as part of performance evaluations
- C. Customizing awareness training by business unit function
- D. Implementing an annual training certification process
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The most effective way to support organizational privacy awareness objectives is D. Customizing awareness training by business unit function.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Organizational privacy awareness objectives are the goals and expectations that an organization sets for its employees and stakeholders regarding the protection and management of personal data. Privacy awareness objectives may vary depending on the nature, scope, and purpose of the organization's data processing activities, as well as the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations and implications that apply to them.
One of the best practices to support organizational privacy awareness objectives is to customize awareness training by business unit function. This means that the organization should design and deliver privacy awareness training programs that are tailored to the specific roles, responsibilities, and needs of each business unit or department within the organization. Customizing awareness training by business unit function can have several benefits, such as:
Enhancing the relevance and effectiveness of the training content and methods for each audience group, by addressing their specific privacy challenges, risks, and opportunities.
Increasing the engagement and motivation of the trainees, by showing them how privacy relates to their daily tasks, goals, and performance.
Improving the retention and application of the training knowledge and skills, by providing practical examples, scenarios, and exercises that reflect the real-world situations and problems that the trainees may encounter.
Fostering a culture of privacy across the organization, by creating a common language and understanding of privacy concepts, principles, and practices among different business units or departments.
Some examples of how to customize awareness training by business unit function are:
Providing different levels or modules of training based on the degree of access or exposure to personal data that each business unit or department has. For example, a basic level of training for all employees, an intermediate level of training for employees who handle personal data occasionally or incidentally, and an advanced level of training for employees who handle personal data regularly or extensively.
Providing different topics or themes of training based on the type or category of personal data that each business unit or department processes. For example, a general topic of training for employees who process non-sensitive or non-personal data, a specific topic of training for employees who process sensitive or special data categories (such as health, biometric, financial, or political data), and a specialized topic of training for employees who process high-risk or high-value data (such as intellectual property, trade secrets, or customer loyalty data).
Providing different formats or modes of training based on the preferences or constraints of each business unit or department. For example, a face-to-face format of training for employees who work in the same location or office, an online format of training for employees who work remotely or across different time zones, and a blended format of training for employees who work in a hybrid mode or have flexible schedules.
The other options are not as effective as option D.
Funding in-depth training and awareness education for data privacy staff (A) may improve the competence and confidence of the data privacy staff who are responsible for designing and implementing the privacy policies and practices of the organization, but it does not necessarily support the organizational privacy awareness objectives for the rest of the employees and stakeholders.
Implementing an annual training certification process (B) may ensure that the employees and stakeholders are updated and refreshed on the privacy policies and practices of the organization on a regular basis, but it does not necessarily address their specific privacy needs and challenges based on their business unit function.
Including mandatory awareness training as part of performance evaluations may incentivize the employees and stakeholders to participate in and complete the privacy awareness training programs offered by the organization, but it does not necessarily enhance their understanding and application of privacy concepts and principles based on their business unit function.
References:
The Benefits of Information Security and Privacy Awareness Training Programs1 What Is Your Privacy and Data Protection Strategy?2 What is Data Privacy Awareness?3
NEW QUESTION # 140
An increase in threats originating from endpoints is an indication that:
- A. network protection should be maintained remotely.
- B. extended detection and response should be installed.
- C. credential management should be implemented.
- D. network audit frequency should increase.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Extended detection and response (XDR) is a security solution that collects and analyzes data from multiple sources, such as endpoints, networks, servers, cloud, and applications, to detect and respond to threats in real time. XDR should be installed to address the increase in threats originating from endpoints, as it provides a holistic and integrated view of the threat landscape, as well as automated and coordinated actions to contain and remediate the threats. XDR also helps to improve the visibility, efficiency, and effectiveness of the security operations, as well as to reduce the complexity and costs of managing multiple security tools.
References: CDPSE Review Manual, 2021, p. 149
NEW QUESTION # 141
An online business posts its customer data protection notice that includes a statement indicating information is collected on how products are used, the content viewed, and the time and duration of online activities. Which data protection principle is applied?
- A. Data use limitation
- B. System use requirements
- C. Data integrity and confidentiality
- D. Lawfulness and fairness
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The data protection principle that is applied when an online business posts its customer data protection notice that includes a statement indicating information is collected on how products are used, the content viewed, and the time and duration of online activities is lawfulness and fairness. Lawfulness and fairness are two of the core principles of data protection under various laws and regulations, such as the GDPR or the CCPA. They state that personal data should be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner in relation to the data subject. By posting a customer data protection notice that informs customers about what information is collected and for what purpose, the online business demonstrates its compliance with these principles.
System use requirements, data integrity and confidentiality, or data use limitation are not the correct names of the data protection principles that are applied in this case. System use requirements are not a specific principle of data protection, but rather a general term that refers to the rules or policies that govern how users can access and use a system or service. Data integrity and confidentiality are two aspects of the security principle of data protection, which states that personal data should be processed in a manner that ensures appropriate security of the personal data. Data use limitation is not a specific principle of data protection either, but rather a concept that relates to the purpose limitation principle, which states that personal data should be collected for specified, explicit and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes.
References: A guide to the data protection principles | ICO, Data Protection Principles: Core Principles of the GDPR - Cloudian, Data Protection Basics: The 7 data protection principles
NEW QUESTION # 142
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ISACA CDPSE (Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer) Certification Exam is a highly sought-after certification in the field of data privacy solutions engineering. Certified Data Privacy Solutions Engineer certification is designed for professionals who have expertise in developing and implementing solutions to ensure the protection of data privacy. The credential is recognized globally and is highly valued by employers, making it a highly sought-after certification by individuals looking to advance their careers in this field.
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