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NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following backup procedures would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Differential backup
- B. Daily backup
- C. Incremental backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have changed since the last backup was made. This means that after a full backup, subsequent incremental backups will only include the data that has been altered or newly created since the previous backup, making it a more efficient way to save storage space and reduce backup time.
Reference = While I can't provide direct references from the Cybersecurity Audit Manual, the concept of incremental backups is a standard practice in data management and is covered in various cybersecurity and IT audit resources, including those provided by ISACA1. For a detailed understanding, you may refer to the ISACA Cybersecurity Audit Certificate resources or other ISACA study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?
- A. Creating attack tools
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Exploitation
- D. Maintaining a presence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).
NEW QUESTION # 34
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of:
- A. caching
- B. policies.
- C. hashing.
- D. frameworks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of hashing. This is because hashing is a technique that applies a mathematical function to a digital asset, such as a file or a message, and produces a unique and fixed-length value, known as a hash or a digest. Hashing helps to verify the integrity of digital assets, by comparing the hash values before and after transmission or storage, and detecting any changes or modifications to the original asset. The other options are not ways to control the integrity of digital assets, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as policies (A), frameworks (B), or caching C.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is the BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information?
- A. Use of access controls, file permissions, and encryption
- B. Use of logging digital signatures, and write protection
- C. Use of the awareness tracing programs and related end-user testing
- D. Use of backups and business continuity planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information is using access controls, file permissions, and encryption. This is because these techniques help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of digital information, by restricting who can access the information, what they can do with it, and how they can access it. The other options are not as effective as using access controls, file permissions, and encryption, because they either relate to protecting availability (B), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is the MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media?
- A. Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.
- B. Review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts.
- C. Review costs related to the organization's social media outages.
- D. Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization's social media.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media is to review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts. This is because access control processes help to ensure that only authorized users can access, modify, or share the organization's social media accounts and content, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information. Access control processes also help to protect the organization's reputation and brand image from being compromised or damaged by unauthorized or inappropriate social media posts. The other options are not as important as reviewing access control processes for the organization's social media accounts, because they either relate to costs (A), insurance (B), or recovery C aspects that are not directly related to the risks posed by social media.
NEW QUESTION # 37
An IS auditor has learned that a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API). Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors?
- A. Denial of service
- B. Resource contention
- C. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- D. Identity spoofing and phishing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The MOST important thing for an IS auditor to consider in an assessment of the potential risk factors when a cloud service provider has not adequately secured its application programming interface (API) is the impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the cloud service. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows communication and interaction between different software components or systems. An API is often used by cloud service providers to enable customers to access and manage their cloud resources and services.
However, if an API is not adequately secured, it can expose the cloud service provider and its customers to various threats, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, tampering, denial-of-service attacks, or malicious code injection.
NEW QUESTION # 38
The "recover" function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:
- A. identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.
- B. planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.
- C. allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.
- D. taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The "recover" function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
- B. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
- C. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
- D. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?
- A. Hands-on testing
- B. Hand-based shakeout
- C. Inventory and discovery
- D. Evaluation of implementation details
Answer: C
Explanation:
The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a Wi-Fi hotspot?
- A. Wireless personal area network (WPAN)
- B. Wireless local area network (WLAN)
- C. Local area network (LAN)
- D. Wide area network (WAN)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Wi-Fi hotspot is a physical location where people can obtain Internet access, typically using Wi-Fi technology, via a wireless local area network (WLAN) using a router connected to an Internet service provider. Public hotspots are often found in places like coffee shops or hotels and are created from wireless access points configured to provide Internet access1.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is the BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information?
- A. Use of access controls, file permissions, and encryption
- B. Use of logging digital signatures, and write protection
- C. Use of the awareness tracing programs and related end-user testing
- D. Use of backups and business continuity planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The BEST method of maintaining the confidentiality of digital information is using access controls, file permissions, and encryption. This is because these techniques help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of digital information, by restricting who can access the information, what they can do with it, and how they can access it. The other options are not as effective as using access controls, file permissions, and encryption, because they either relate to protecting availability (B), integrity C, or awareness (D).
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following features of an anti-malware application is MOST helpful in protecting an organization from the potential of infected computers using a virtual private network (VPN)?
- A. On-demand scanning
- B. Data heuristics
- C. Data packet analysis
- D. Endpoint remote control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data packet analysis is the most helpful feature of an anti-malware application in protecting an organization from the potential of infected computers using a VPN. This feature involves examining the data packets that are being transmitted over the network. By analyzing these packets, the anti-malware can detect malicious activity or anomalies that may indicate an infection. This is particularly important for VPN traffic, as it is encrypted and not easily inspected by traditional methods.
NEW QUESTION # 44
What is the MAIN objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy?
- A. To define the response time required of security personnel when an intrusion is detected
- B. To establish the criteria and reporting requirements associated with intrusion events
- C. To define the assets covered by intrusion detection systems (IDSs)
- D. To establish the actions to be taken by security personnel in the event an intruder is detected
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main objective of an intrusion detection system (IDS) policy is to establish the criteria for what constitutes an intrusion event and the reporting requirements once such an event is detected. This includes defining what activities are considered anomalies, ensuring that security breaches are identified, and specifying how and to whom these incidents should be reported. The policy sets the foundation for how intrusions are detected, assessed, and managed within an organization's network infrastructure1.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following mobile computing trends should cause the GREATEST concern for an organization that needs to protect sensitive organizational data?
- A. Growing consumer demand for advanced mobile technologies
- B. Expanding availability of mobile network coverage
- C. Fluctuating size of form factors for mobile devices
- D. Increasing amount of storage space available on mobile devices
Answer: D
Explanation:
The increasing amount of storage space available on mobile devices poses the greatest concern for organizations needing to protect sensitive data. Larger storage capacities allow for more data to be stored on a device, which can include sensitive organizational information. If such a device is lost, stolen, or compromised, the potential for sensitive data to be accessed increases significantly. Additionally, the more data a device can hold, the more attractive it becomes as a target for attackers.
Reference = ISACA's resources highlight the risks associated with mobile devices' storage capabilities, especially when they contain sensitive organizational data. The threats, vulnerabilities, and risks related to the storage of sensitive data on mobile devices are discussed, emphasizing the importance of protecting such data from unauthorized access123.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- B. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- C. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- D. Lack of specificity m the principles
Answer: D
Explanation:
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is the GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Sen/ices to evaluate a cloud service provider?
- A. Incompatibility with cloud service business model
- B. Omission of confidentiality in the criteria
- C. Inability to issue SOC 2 or SOC 3 reports
- D. Lack of specificity m the principles
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The GREATEST drawback when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider is the lack of specificity in the principles. This is because the AICPA/CICA Trust Services are a set of principles and criteria that provide guidance for evaluating and reporting on controls over information systems and services. However, the principles and criteria are very broad and generic, and do not address the specific risks and challenges that are associated with cloud services, such as data sovereignty, multi-tenancy, portability, etc. The other options are not drawbacks when using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, but rather different aspects or benefits of using the AICPA/CICA Trust Services to evaluate a cloud service provider, such as compatibility (A), confidentiality C, or reporting (D).
NEW QUESTION # 48
What would be an IS auditor's BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?
- A. Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.
- B. The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.
- C. The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.
- D. The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager's statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?
- A. Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
- B. Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
- C. Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
- D. Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).
NEW QUESTION # 50
Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?
- A. The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
- B. The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
- C. The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
- D. The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes. The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following injects malicious scripts into a trusted website to infect a target?
- A. Cross-site scripting
- B. Malicious code
- C. Denial-of-service attack
- D. Structure query language attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a security vulnerability typically found in web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject malicious scripts into otherwise benign and trusted websites. When other users load the infected pages, the malicious scripts execute, which can lead to unauthorized access, data theft, and a variety of other malicious outcomes.
Reference = While I can't provide direct references from the Cybersecurity Audit Manual, the concept of XSS and its implications are well-documented in cybersecurity literature, including resources provided by ISACA1. For a detailed understanding, you may refer to the ISACA Cybersecurity Audit Certificate resources or other ISACA study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following backup procedure would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made?
- A. Differential backup
- B. Daily backup
- C. Incremental backup
- D. Full backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
The backup procedure that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup helps to reduce the backup time and storage space, as well as the recovery time, as only the changed files need to be restored. The other options are not backup procedures that would only copy files that have changed since the last backup was made, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as daily backup (B), differential backup C, or full backup (D).
NEW QUESTION # 53
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