[UPDATED Apr-2025] Best Value Available Preparation Guide for N10-008 Exam
1 Full N10-008 Practice Test and 1075 Unique Questions, Get it Now!
To prepare for the CompTIA N10-008 exam, candidates can take advantage of a variety of resources, including study guides, practice exams, and online training courses. These resources provide candidates with the knowledge and skills needed to pass the exam and earn their certification. In addition, candidates can gain hands-on experience with networking technologies by working in entry-level networking positions or by participating in internships or apprenticeships.
CompTIA N10-008 exam covers a wide range of topics, including network architecture, protocols and services, network operations, network security, and network troubleshooting and tools. N10-008 exam consists of multiple-choice questions and is available in several languages, including English, Spanish, German, Portuguese, Japanese, and Chinese.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which of the following are authentication methods that can use AAA authentication? (Select TWO).
- A. TACACS+
- B. RADIUS
- C. MS-CHAP
- D. Kerberos
- E. TKIP/AES
- F. PKI
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 19
A network is secured and is only accessible via TLS and IPSec VPNs. Which of the following would need to be present to allow a user to access network resources on a laptop without logging in to the VPN application?
- A. Secure Shell
- B. Remote desktop connection
- C. In-band management
- D. Site-to-site
Answer: D
Explanation:
A site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN that connects two or more networks over the Internet using a secure tunnel. A site-to-site VPN allows users to access network resources on a laptop without logging in to the VPN application, as long as the laptop is connected to one of the networks in the VPN. A site-to-site VPN is transparent to the users and does not require any additional software or configuration on the client devices.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 3.4: Explain the purposes and use cases for VPNs.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following would be BEST suited for a long cable run with a 40Gbps bandwidth?
- A. Cat 7
- B. Cat 6a
- C. Cat 8
- D. Cat 5e
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: https://scoop.co.za/blog/choosing-the-right-cable-for-your-network
NEW QUESTION # 21
A technician just validated a theory that resolved a network outage. The technician then verified that all users could access resources. Which of the following is the next step the technician should take in the network troubleshooting methodology?
- A. Verify the services are restored.
- B. Identify where the network outage is occurring.
- C. Write the lessons learned.
- D. Test a new theory.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following passwords would provide the best defense against a brute-force attack?
- A. Qwerty!@#$
- B. ThislsMyPasswordForWork
- C. Password! 1
- D. T5!8j5
Answer: D
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a method of guessing passwords by trying every possible combination of characters until the correct one is found. The longer and more complex the password, the harder it is to crack by brute-force. A password that provides the best defense against a brute-force attack should have a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters, and should be as long as possible. The password T5!8j5 meets these criteria, while the other options are either too short, too simple, or too common.
Reference:
Password Attacks - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.21
CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Security Concepts and Tools,
page 25: https://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=3021579&seqNum=2
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following is the physical security mechanism that would MOST likely be used to enter a secure site?
- A. A smart locker
- B. A firewall
- C. A landing page
- D. An access control vestibule
Answer: D
Explanation:
An access control vestibule is a physical security mechanism that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure site. The doors are controlled by an electronic system that verifies the identity and authorization of the person entering before allowing access to the next door. A landing page is a web page that appears when a user clicks on a link or advertisement. A smart locker is a physical security mechanism that allows users to store and retrieve items using a code or biometric authentication. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Network Operations, Objective 4.1: Explain the importance of documentation and diagrams, Subobjective: Physical security devices (locks, cameras, etc.)
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following DHCP settings would be used to ensure a device gets the same IP address each time it is connected to the network?
- A. Relay
- B. Exclusion
- C. Reservation
- D. Scope options
- E. Pool
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP is a protocol that dynamically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. DHCP allows devices to obtain an IP address automatically without manual configuration. DHCP also simplifies network management by reducing IP conflicts and address exhaustion.
A DHCP setting is a configuration option that affects how DHCP operates on a network. DHCP settings can be applied at different levels, such as the server, the scope, or the client. DHCP settings can control various aspects of the IP address assignment process, such as the range, the duration, the options, and the exclusions.
A DHCP reservation is a DHCP setting that assigns a specific IP address to a specific device based on its MAC address. A DHCP reservation ensures that the device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server, even if the lease expires or the device reboots. A DHCP reservation can be useful for devices that need a consistent IP address, such as servers, printers, cameras, or gaming consoles.
The other options are not DHCP settings that would ensure a device gets the same IP address each time it is connected to the network. Scope options are DHCP settings that apply to a group of devices within a defined range of IP addresses. Exclusion is a DHCP setting that prevents a range of IP addresses from being assigned to any device. Relay is a DHCP setting that allows a device to forward DHCP requests from one network segment to another. Pool is a DHCP setting that defines the available IP addresses that can be assigned to devices. Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 3: Network Operations, Section 3.3: Network Configuration Management, Subsection: DHCP, pp. 144-146.
Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes, Section 2.6: Network Addressing, Subsection: DHCP, p. 38.
Static IP vs DHCP Reservation, The Tech Journal, May 7, 2019.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A systems operator is granted access to a monitoring application, configuration application, and timekeeping application. The operator Is denied access to the financial and project management applications by the system's security configuration. Which of the following BEST describes the security principle in use?
- A. Multifactor authentication
- B. Least privilege
- C. Separation of duties
- D. Network access control
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 26
A public, wireless ISP mounts its access points on top of traffic signal poles. Fiber-optic cables are installed from a fiber switch through the ground and up the pole to a fiber-copper media converter, and then connected to the AP. In one location, the switchport is showing sporadic link loss to the attached AP. A similar link loss is not seen at the AP interface. The fiber-optic cable is moved to another unused switchport with a similar result. Which of the following steps should the assigned technician complete NEXT?
- A. Replace the media converter.
- B. Replace the copper patch cord.
- C. Clean the fiber-optic cable ends.
- D. Disable and enable the switchport.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Fiber-optic cables are cables that use light signals to transmit data over long distances at high speeds.
Fiber-optic cables are sensitive to dirt, dust, moisture, or other contaminants that can interfere with the light signals and cause link loss or signal degradation. To troubleshoot link loss issues with fiber-optic cables, one of the steps that should be completed next is to clean the fiber-optic cable ends with a lint-free cloth or a specialized cleaning tool. Cleaning the fiber-optic cable ends can remove any dirt or debris that may be blocking or reflecting the light signals and restore the link quality.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A network consultant is setting up a new wireless infrastructure. The new infrastructure is primarily focused on supporting legacy equipment that does not support the newest standards. Which of the following frequency ranges will the consultant most likely have to support?
- A. 2.4GHz
- B. 5GHz
- C. 5.9GHz
- D. 6GHz
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely frequency range that the network consultant will have to support is 2.4GHz. This is because the most common legacy wireless standards, 802.11b and 802.11g, use the 2.4GHz range1. IEEE 802.11a uses
5GHz exclusively, and 5.9GHz and 6GHz are not widely used by legacy equipment. Therefore, A. 2.4GHz is the correct answer.
https://www.networkcomputing.com/networking/wireless-beginners-part-1-rf-and-waves
NEW QUESTION # 28
A network engineer is concerned about VLAN hopping happening on the network. Which of the following should the engineer do to address this concern?
- A. Implement ACLs on the VLAN.
- B. Change the default VLAN.
- C. Configure private VLANs.
- D. Enable dynamic ARP inspection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that can help to prevent VLAN hopping. DAI works by verifying that ARP responses are coming from the devices that they claim to be from. If an attacker sends an ARP response that is not from a legitimate device, DAI will drop the response.
NEW QUESTION # 29
The management team needs to ensure unnecessary modifications to the corporate network are not permitted and version control is maintained. Which of the following documents would BEST support this?
- A. An incident response plan
- B. An acceptable use policy
- C. A change management policy
- D. A business continuity plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
A change management policy is a document that outlines the procedures and guidelines for making changes to a network or system, including how changes are approved, tested, and implemented. By following a change management policy, organizations can ensure that unnecessary modifications to the network are not permitted and version control is maintained. Reference:
Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 1.6 Given a scenario, implement network configuration and change management best practices.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company's address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page. Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?
- A. NS
- B. SOA
- C. TXT
- D. CNAME
Answer: D
Explanation:
CNAME can be used to direct an domain to another domain. You can do so with A or AAAA as well but it will be domain to an IP.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following would be BEST to use to detect a MAC spoofing attack?
- A. Internet Control Message Protocol
- B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
- C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
- D. Internet Message Access Protocol
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) is a protocol that allows a device to obtain its MAC address from its IP address. A MAC spoofing attack is an attack where a device pretends to have a different MAC address than its actual one. RARP can be used to detect a MAC spoofing attack by comparing the MAC address obtained from RARP with the MAC address obtained from other sources, such as ARP or DHCP.
References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25597/reverse-address-resolution-protocol-rarp
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following can have multiple VLAN interfaces?
- A. Layer 3 switch
- B. Hub
- C. Bridge
- D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A VLAN interface is a virtual interface that can be assigned to a VLAN and configured with an IP address and other parameters. It can be used to enable inter-VLAN routing, management access, or firewall filtering on a device.
* A hub is a device that connects multiple devices in a network and broadcasts all incoming traffic to all ports. It does not support VLANs or routing functions. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
* A layer 3 switch is a device that combines the functions of a layer 2 switch and a router. It can forward frames based on MAC addresses and packets based on IP addresses. It can also support multiple VLAN interfaces and enable inter-VLAN routing without the need for an external router. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
* A bridge is a device that connects two network segments and forwards frames based on MAC addresses.
It can reduce collisions and increase bandwidth, but it does not support VLANs or routing functions.
Therefore, option C is incorrect.
* A load balancer is a device that distributes incoming traffic among multiple servers or devices based on various criteria. It can improve performance, availability, and scalability of a network service. It can support VLANs, but it does not have multiple VLAN interfaces. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Devices, pages 51-52, 55-56, 59-60,
63-64.
* Professor Messer's Network+ Video Course, Section 1.1: Network Devices, videos 1.1.1 - 1.1.4, 1.1.6,
1.1.7, 1.1.9.
* Cisco: Configuring InterVLAN Routing
NEW QUESTION # 33
A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following would normally be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?
- A. DHCP snooping
- B. Secure SNMP
- C. Implicit deny
- D. Port security
Answer: C
Explanation:
Implicit deny is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit deny is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit deny can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes.
Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.
Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch. However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.
DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denial-of-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A technician is consolidating a topology with multiple SSlDs into one unique SSID deployment. Which of the following features will be possible after this new configuration?
- A. Seamless roaming
- B. WPA
- C. Basic service set
- D. MU-MIMO
Answer: A
Explanation:
A service set identifier (SSID) is a name that identifies a wireless network12.
A wireless network can have multiple SSIDs, each with different settings and security parameters, to create separate logical networks for different purposes or users12.
However, having multiple SSIDs can also create some challenges, such as increased management overhead, reduced bandwidth, and interference12.
A technician can consolidate a topology with multiple SSIDs into one unique SSID deployment, by using a single SSID for the entire wireless network and applying different policies or profiles based on other criteria, such as user roles, device types, or locations12.
One of the benefits of having a unique SSID deployment is that it enables seamless roaming, which is the ability of a wireless device to move from one access point (AP) to another without losing connectivity or experiencing delays12.
Seamless roaming is possible after this new configuration, because the device does not need to scan for and authenticate with different SSIDs as it moves across the network, but can simply switch to the best available AP that shares the same SSID12.
The other options are not features that will be possible after this new configuration, because they are either unrelated or unaffected by the SSID deployment:
B . A basic service set (BSS) is a group of wireless devices that communicate with a single AP3. It is not a feature that will be possible after this new configuration, because it is a basic unit of a wireless network that does not depend on the SSID deployment3.
CWi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security protocol that encrypts and authenticates wireless data transmissions4. It is not a feature that will be possible after this new configuration, because it is a security option that can be applied to any SSID deployment, regardless of the number of SSIDs4.
D . Multi-user multiple-input multiple-output (MU-MIMO) is a technology that allows an AP to transmit data to multiple devices simultaneously, increasing the network efficiency and performance. It is not a feature that will be possible after this new configuration, because it is a technology option that can be supported by any SSID deployment, as long as the AP and the devices are compatible with it.
Reference:
1: Wireless LAN Topologies - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Full Course for Beginners - Wireless LAN Topologies (3.1)
3: Wireless Network Types - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1
4: Wireless Security Protocols - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.2
[5]: Wireless Technologies - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.3
NEW QUESTION # 35
An employee reports to a network administrator that internet access is not working. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST?
- A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
- B. Ask the user to restart the computer.
- C. Identify symptoms.
- D. Determine if anything has changed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a user reports that internet access is not working, it is important to first determine if there have been any recent changes to the network or the user's computer that could have caused the issue. This could include changes to the network configuration, the installation of new software or hardware, or other events that could have impacted the user's ability to access the internet. By determining if anything has changed, the administrator can narrow down the possible causes of the issue and focus on addressing the most likely cause.
NEW QUESTION # 36
A help desk supervisor reviews the following excerpt of a call transcript:
Which of the following was the agent trying to accomplish with this exchange?
- A. The agent was questioning the obvious.
- B. The agent was verifying full system functionality
- C. The agent was trying to duplicate the problem.
- D. The agent was identifying potential effects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The agent was trying to duplicate the problem by asking the user to perform the same steps that led to the issue. This is a common troubleshooting technique that helps the agent to identify the root cause of the problem and verify if it is reproducible or intermittent. By duplicating the problem, the agent can also gather more information about the symptoms and error messages that the user encountered. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], [Troubleshooting Methodology - CompTIA Network+ N10-007 -
1.4 | Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses]
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following would be used to indicate when unauthorized access to physical internal hardware has occurred?
- A. Radio frequency identification tags
- B. Motion detectors
- C. Locking racks
- D. Tamper evident seal
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tamper evident seal is a device or material that provides a visible indication of unauthorized access to physical internal hardware. Tamper evident seals can be stickers, labels, tapes, locks, or seals that are designed to break, tear, or change color when someone tries to open, remove, or tamper with them. Tamper evident seals can help deter and detect physical security breaches, such as theft, vandalism, or sabotage of hardware devices12. Tamper evident seals can also provide evidence for forensic analysis and legal action3.
References
1 - What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices
2 - Device Physical Security Guideline | Information Security Office
3 - What is unauthorized physical access? - Heimduo
NEW QUESTION # 38
A help desk supervisor reviews the following excerpt of a call transcript:
Which of the following was the agent trying to accomplish with this exchange?
- A. The agent was questioning the obvious.
- B. The agent was verifying full system functionality
- C. The agent was trying to duplicate the problem.
- D. The agent was identifying potential effects.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The agent was trying to duplicate the problem by asking the user to perform the same steps that led to the issue. This is a common troubleshooting technique that helps the agent to identify the root cause of the problem and verify if it is reproducible or intermittent. By duplicating the problem, the agent can also gather more information about the symptoms and error messages that the user encountered. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], [Troubleshooting Methodology - CompTIA Network+ N10-007 -
1.4 | Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses]
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
- A. GDPR
- B. SAML
- C. PCI DSS
- D. SCADA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a European Union regulation on information privacy and security. It applies to any organization that collects or processes personal data of individuals in the EU, and it sets out rules and requirements for data protection, consent, breach notification, and enforcement1 References1: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Data_Protection_Regulation
NEW QUESTION # 40
A lab environment hosts Internet-facing web servers and other experimental machines, which technicians use for various tasks. A technician installs software on one of the web servers to allow communication to the company's file server, but it is unable to connect to it Other machines in the building are able to retrieve files from the file server.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the web server cannot retrieve the files, and what should be done to resolve the problem?
- A. The lab environment has lost connectivity to the company router, and the switch needs to be rebooted. The technician can get the key to the wiring closet and manually restart the switch
- B. The lab environment is located in the DM2, and traffic to the LAN zone is denied by default. The technician can move the computer to another zone or request an exception from the administrator.
- C. The lab environment's IDS is blocking the network traffic. The technician can whitelist the new application in the IDS.
- D. The lab environment is currently set up with hubs instead of switches, and the requests are getting bounced back. The technician can submit a request for upgraded equipment to management.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 41
A network technician is performing tests on a potentially faulty network card that is installed in a server.
Which of the following addresses will MOST likely be used during traffic diagnostic tests?
- A. 127.0.0.1
- B. 255.255.255.0
- C. 192.168.0.1
- D. 10.10.10.10
Answer: A
Explanation:
* The address 127.0.0.1 is a special IP address that is used to refer to the local host or the computer itself12.
* This address is also known as the loopback address, because it loops back to the same device without going through any network devices12.
* A network technician can use this address to perform traffic diagnostic tests on a potentially faulty network card, by sending and receiving packets to and from the same device12.
* This way, the technician can check if the network card is functioning properly, without involving any external factors such as network congestion, firewall rules, or routing issues12.
* The address 10.10.10.10 (A) is a private IP address that is used for internal network communication, but it is not a loopback address12.
* The address 192.168.0.1 is another private IP address that is often used as the default gateway for home routers, but it is also not a loopback address12.
* The address 255.255.255.0 (D) is a subnet mask that is used to define the network and host portions of an IP address, but it is not an IP address itself12. References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Protocols and Services, Section 2.1: TCP/IP, pp. 52-53.
* Professor Messer's CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course, Section 2.1: TCP/IP, Video: Loopback and Link-Local Addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A technician knows the MAC address of a device and is attempting to find the device's IP address. Which of the following should the technician look at to find the IP address? (Select TWO).
- A. DHCP leases
- B. MAC address table
- C. ARP table
- D. STP topology
- E. IP route table
- F. DNS cache
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC) that allows it to communicate on a physical network layer, such as Ethernet1. An IP address is a logical identifier assigned to a device that allows it to communicate on a network layer, such as IP2.
A technician can use different methods to find the IP address of a device if they know its MAC address. Two of the most common methods are looking at the ARP table and the DHCP leases.
The ARP table is a data structure that stores the mappings between IP addresses and MAC addresses on a device. ARP stands for Address Resolution Protocol, which is a network protocol that enables devices to discover the MAC address of another device based on its IP address3. The ARP table is populated by sending ARP requests and receiving ARP replies, or by using static ARP entries that are manually configured4.
A technician can look at the ARP table of their own device or a nearby device, such as a router or a switch, to find the IP address of a device with a known MAC address. For example, on a Windows device, the technician can use the command arp -a to display the ARP table, and look for the entry that matches the MAC address. On a Cisco device, the technician can use the command show ip arp to display the ARP table, and look for the entry that matches the MAC address.
The DHCP leases are the records of the IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server to DHCP clients. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a network protocol that enables devices to obtain IP addresses and other network configuration parameters automatically from a DHCP server. The DHCP leases contain information such as the IP address, the MAC address, the lease duration, and the expiration time of each DHCP client.
A technician can look at the DHCP leases of the DHCP server that serves the network segment where the device with the known MAC address is connected. For example, on a Windows DHCP server, the technician can use the DHCP console to view the DHCP leases, and look for the entry that matches the MAC address. On a Cisco DHCP server, the technician can use the command show ip dhcp binding to view the DHCP leases, and look for the entry that matches the MAC address.
The other options are incorrect for the following reasons:
C . IP route table is a data structure that stores the routes to different network destinations on a device. It does not store the MAC addresses of the devices on the network.
D . DNS cache is a data structure that stores the mappings between domain names and IP addresses on a device. DNS stands for Domain Name System, which is a network service that translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. It does not store the MAC addresses of the devices on the network.
E . MAC address table is a data structure that stores the mappings between MAC addresses and switch ports on a switch. It does not store the IP addresses of the devices on the network.
F . STP topology is a network design that uses the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent loops and create a loop-free logical topology on a switched network. It does not store the IP addresses or the MAC addresses of the devices on the network. Reference:
1: MAC address - Wikipedia
2: IP address - Wikipedia
3: Address Resolution Protocol - Wikipedia
4: How ARP Works
5: How to Use the Arp Command in Windows
6: show ip arp
7: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol - Wikipedia
8: DHCP Lease
9: View DHCP Leases
10: show ip dhcp binding
11: Routing table - Wikipedia
12: Domain Name System - Wikipedia
13: DNS cache - Wikipedia
14: MAC address table - Wikipedia
15: Spanning Tree Protocol - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 43
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